There was no agreement to invade or divide Europe.
No agreement to divide Europe…?
Secret protocol
In the event of a territorial and political rearrangement in the areas belonging to the Baltic States (Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania), the northern boundary of Lithuania shall represent the boundary of the spheres of influence of Germany and the U.S.S.R. In this connection the interest of Lithuania in the Vilna area is recognized by each party.
In the event of a territorial and political rearrangement of the areas belonging to the Polish state the spheres of influence of Germany and the U.S.S.R. shall be bounded approximately by the line of the rivers Narew, Vistula, and San.
The question of whether the interests of both parties make desirable the maintenance of an independent Polish state and how such a state should be bounded can only be definitely determined in the course of further political developments.
In any event both Governments will resolve this question by means of a friendly agreement.
With regard to Southeastern Europe attention is called by the Soviet side to its interest in Bessarabia. The German side declares; its complete political disinterestedness in these areas.
No, they agreed to spheres of influence. It’s one thing to agree that, in a coming war, neither party will cross said lines, and it’s another entirely to make that a binding agreement to invade all of Europe together. You jumped from point A not to B, but to Z, making up a bunch of assumptions that have no logical basis in between.
They divided Europe into those spheres of influence, resulting in Germans taking over parts of Poland, Soviet Union taking over Baltics, parts of Poland, Bessarabia, areas such as those given to it in the pact.
They agreed to spheres of influence. It’s one thing to agree that, in a coming war, neither party will cross said lines, and it’s another entirely to make that a binding agreement to invade all of Europe together. You jumped from point A not to B, but to Z, making up a bunch of assumptions that have no logical basis in between.
There was no agreement to invade or divide Europe. You have produced 0 evidence of this.
No agreement to divide Europe…?
Secret protocol
Also this treaty: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German–Soviet_Boundary_and_Friendship_Treaty
There’s nothing in there supporting a Soviet desire for invasion.
It’s literally spelling out how they’re dividing Europe lol
No, they agreed to spheres of influence. It’s one thing to agree that, in a coming war, neither party will cross said lines, and it’s another entirely to make that a binding agreement to invade all of Europe together. You jumped from point A not to B, but to Z, making up a bunch of assumptions that have no logical basis in between.
They divided Europe into those spheres of influence, resulting in Germans taking over parts of Poland, Soviet Union taking over Baltics, parts of Poland, Bessarabia, areas such as those given to it in the pact.
They agreed to spheres of influence. It’s one thing to agree that, in a coming war, neither party will cross said lines, and it’s another entirely to make that a binding agreement to invade all of Europe together. You jumped from point A not to B, but to Z, making up a bunch of assumptions that have no logical basis in between.
Yes that’s what the secret protocol is about, it spells it out very clearly
Correct, it wasn’t about agreeing to invade and divide Europe. You’re conflating the two, but they aren’t at all the same.
It literally isn’t, your whole argument was that it’s not literal, it’s actual code
The division isn’t some code. You can read the English language translation here: https://avalon.law.yale.edu/20th_century/addsepro.asp
Lol. The degree to which you don’t even try to be consistent or honest is impressive
Thanks