Yep. It’s a bit hard to fathom today, but in the Middle Ages few people had the ability to read and write, mostly either learned monks and clergy, or those wealthy enough to be taught by them. With such a small pool of people, it’s comparatively easy to influence the prevailing spelling through the actions of a few.
Who had the power to unilaterally decree that the spelling of multiple existing words must now be spelled differently?
EDIT
The links i found all just refer to “scholars in the middle ages” being the cause of this
https://www.merriam-webster.com/grammar/why-is-debt-spelled-like-that
Yep. It’s a bit hard to fathom today, but in the Middle Ages few people had the ability to read and write, mostly either learned monks and clergy, or those wealthy enough to be taught by them. With such a small pool of people, it’s comparatively easy to influence the prevailing spelling through the actions of a few.