• SailorFuzz@lemmy.worldBanned from community
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      10 hours ago

      you’re just be pedantic. The issue isn’t about it being “mostly”, it’s about if its a “men’s” thing. A 42/58 isn’t that wide of a gap to say that it’s one gender’s thing. As the difference could likely just be attributed to other cultural factors and not the thing itself.

      If office workers were split 42/58, you wouldn’t call it a “man’s” job, even if technically there’s more men.

      • grue@lemmy.world
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        7 hours ago

        Nevertheless, if you want to say it’s not “mostly,” your example ought to do better than 42%!