• saltesc@lemmy.world
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    2 days ago

    That’s definitely not true. Maybe it is in the US, but seeing machines go fast or tackle complex challenges isn’t a gender-specific thing. For example, 42% of Formula 1 fans are female. Plenty of women spectating and competing at drag strips, land speed, rally, etc.

    The old conservative culture of assuming things of people or pigeonholing them based on gender—like, “attract and fascinate mostly men”—is not as relevant as it used to be back in the old days, nor should it be preserved.

      • SailorFuzz@lemmy.worldBanned from community
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        2 days ago

        you’re just be pedantic. The issue isn’t about it being “mostly”, it’s about if its a “men’s” thing. A 42/58 isn’t that wide of a gap to say that it’s one gender’s thing. As the difference could likely just be attributed to other cultural factors and not the thing itself.

        If office workers were split 42/58, you wouldn’t call it a “man’s” job, even if technically there’s more men.

        • grue@lemmy.world
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          2 days ago

          Nevertheless, if you want to say it’s not “mostly,” your example ought to do better than 42%!

        • grue@lemmy.world
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          2 days ago

          Yes, anything over half is literally what “mostly” means. Doesn’t matter if it’s 99% or 51%.

          • AlexLost@lemmy.world
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            22 hours ago

            That word is covering a lot of ground. Why would you let language be so ambiguous to you? What would you call 75%, and then how can you destinguish between the two if they are both “mostly”?

              • wieson@feddit.org
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                2 days ago

                If your friend group is 6 men and 4 women, do you tell people “I’m mostly friends with men”?

                • saltesc@lemmy.world
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                  2 days ago

                  “It’s been a big effort by the team these past three years, but we’re mostly done now.”

                  sighs of relief across the research grant board

                  “Boom! Right on time!”